Is any portion of what follows on topic?
I'm looking for either an answer or a reference. I have the impression that US Spanish-speakers are distributed differently now than previously. I think the distribution used to be primarily in certain specific major population centers and certain regions, whereas now there is more peppering all around the country. I'm interested to know if there is data about this, and if it backs up my conjecture. Also, I wonder how linear or nonlinear this spreading out transformation might have occurred, and what's behind it.